1. On which date is Gandhi Jayanti celebrated every year in India?
(a) 14 April
(b) 2 October
(c) 15 August
(d) 26 January
Answer: (b) 2 October
Explanation: Gandhi Jayanti is observed on 2 October to commemorate the birth anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi, who was born on 2 October 1869 at Porbandar in present-day Gujarat. The day is also observed internationally as the International Day of Non-Violence, following a United Nations General Assembly resolution adopted in 2007. Gandhi Jayanti is one of India’s three National Days.
2. What is observed internationally on 2 October as declared by the United Nations?
(a) International Day of Peace
(b) International Day of Non-Violence
(c) International Day of Democracy
(d) International Human Rights Day
Answer: (b) International Day of Non-Violence
Explanation: The United Nations observes 2 October as the International Day of Non-Violence. The UN General Assembly adopted the relevant resolution in June 2007. The date was chosen because it marks the birth anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi, whose philosophy emphasised non-violence and peaceful resistance.
3. What was Mahatma Gandhi's birthplace?
(a) Ahmedabad
(b) Rajkot
(c) Porbandar
(d) Surat
Answer: (c) Porbandar
Explanation: Mahatma Gandhi was born on 2 October 1869 in Porbandar, then part of the princely state of Kathiawar. His full name was Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi. He studied law in London and later developed the philosophy of Satyagraha during his years in South Africa.
4. Who founded the Satyagraha movement in South Africa before applying it extensively in India's freedom struggle?
(a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(d) Dadabhai Naoroji
Answer: (b) Mahatma Gandhi
Explanation: Mahatma Gandhi developed and practised Satyagraha in South Africa, where he worked against discriminatory laws affecting the Indian community. The term combines the ideas of truth and insistence or firmness. Gandhi subsequently used Satyagraha as a major method during movements in India, including the Champaran Satyagraha, Kheda Satyagraha and the Non-Cooperation and Civil Disobedience movements.
5. Which former Prime Minister of India also has his birth anniversary on 2 October?
(a) Morarji Desai
(b) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
Answer: (b) Lal Bahadur Shastri
Explanation: Lal Bahadur Shastri was born on 2 October 1904 at Mughalsarai in present-day Uttar Pradesh. He served as India's second Prime Minister from 1964 to 1966. He gave the famous slogan “Jai Jawan, Jai Kisan,” linking national security with agricultural development. His memorial is Vijay Ghat in New Delhi.
6. Which slogan is most closely associated with former Prime Minister Lal Bahadur Shastri?
(a) Jai Hind
(b) Vande Mataram
(c) Jai Jawan, Jai Kisan
(d) Inquilab Zindabad
Answer: (c) Jai Jawan, Jai Kisan
Explanation: The slogan “Jai Jawan, Jai Kisan” was popularised by Lal Bahadur Shastri during his tenure as Prime Minister. It highlighted the importance of India's armed forces and farmers. Shastri served as Prime Minister from 1964 until his death in Tashkent in January 1966.
7. Which department is the nodal agency for India's Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) policy?
(a) Department of Economic Affairs
(b) Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade
(c) Department of Revenue
(d) Ministry of External Affairs
Answer: (b) Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade
Explanation: The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, is the nodal department for formulation of FDI policy and investment promotion. The Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 and regulations issued by the RBI also play an important role in governing foreign investment.
8. What was India's net FDI inflow during 2025–26 according to the current-affairs report?
(a) US$7.65 billion
(b) US$15.20 billion
(c) US$40.90 billion
(d) US$94.50 billion
Answer: (a) US$7.65 billion
Explanation: India's net FDI inflow was reported at US$7.65 billion in 2025–26. Gross FDI was US$94.5 billion, but net FDI is calculated after accounting for repatriation and Indian outward investment. The distinction between gross and net FDI is important for competitive examinations involving India's balance of payments and external sector.
9. Which ministry is primarily responsible for implementing the India Semiconductor Mission (ISM)?
(a) Ministry of Science and Technology
(b) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
(c) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
(d) Ministry of Heavy Industries
Answer: (b) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
Explanation: The India Semiconductor Mission operates under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY). The mission seeks to build a semiconductor and display manufacturing ecosystem in India and includes support for semiconductor fabs, display fabs, ATMP/OSAT facilities, semiconductor design and related infrastructure.
10. What is the proposed size of the Chip Design Commercialisation Fund under the recommended India Semiconductor Mission 2.0 framework?
(a) ₹500 crore
(b) ₹750 crore
(c) ₹1,000 crore
(d) ₹1,275 crore
Answer: (c) ₹1,000 crore
Explanation: The proposed Chip Design Commercialisation Fund is recommended at a scale of ₹1,000 crore. It is intended to help Indian fabless semiconductor companies move from chip design towards commercialisation and tape-out. The broader India Semiconductor Mission 2.0 agenda places greater emphasis on advanced chip design, equipment, materials, packaging and semiconductor talent.
11. How many semiconductor manufacturing units were approved under the first phase of the India Semiconductor Mission, according to the current-affairs report?
(a) 6
(b) 8
(c) 12
(d) 20
Answer: (c) 12
Explanation: The first phase of the India Semiconductor Mission approved 12 semiconductor-related manufacturing units involving committed investment of approximately ₹1.64 lakh crore. Importantly, not all these units are semiconductor fabrication plants; several are ATMP/OSAT facilities concerned with assembly, testing and packaging. This distinction between fabs and packaging facilities is important for examinations.
12. What does OSAT stand for in the semiconductor industry?
(a) Optical Semiconductor Assembly Technology
(b) Outsourced Semiconductor Assembly and Test
(c) Open Semiconductor Advanced Technology
(d) Overseas Semiconductor Assembly and Transfer
Answer: (b) Outsourced Semiconductor Assembly and Test
Explanation: OSAT stands for Outsourced Semiconductor Assembly and Test. OSAT companies perform packaging, assembly and testing of semiconductor chips after fabrication. ATMP—Assembly, Testing, Marking and Packaging—is another commonly used term in India's semiconductor policy framework.
13. According to the Special Intensive Revision-related current-affairs report, approximately how many names were struck off draft electoral rolls across 30 States and Union Territories?
(a) 5 crore
(b) 8 crore
(c) 10 crore
(d) 13 crore
Answer: (d) 13 crore
Explanation: The report stated that approximately 13 crore names were struck off draft electoral rolls across 30 States and Union Territories during the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) exercise. The issue is linked to electoral-roll verification and enrolment of eligible voters. Article 324 of the Constitution vests the Election Commission with superintendence, direction and control of elections.
14. Which constitutional Article vests the superintendence, direction and control of elections in the Election Commission of India?
(a) Article 280
(b) Article 315
(c) Article 324
(d) Article 329
Answer: (c) Article 324
Explanation: Article 324 establishes the constitutional authority of the Election Commission of India over elections to Parliament, State Legislatures and the offices of President and Vice-President. Article 325 deals with a single general electoral roll, Article 326 provides for adult suffrage, while Article 329 deals with judicial intervention in electoral matters.
15. Which Article provides for elections to the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies on the basis of adult suffrage?
(a) Article 324
(b) Article 325
(c) Article 326
(d) Article 327
Answer: (c) Article 326
Explanation: Article 326 provides that elections to the House of the People and Legislative Assemblies of States shall be based on adult suffrage, subject to constitutional and statutory qualifications. The voting age was reduced from 21 to 18 years by the 61st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1988.
16. Which Article of the Constitution provides for a single general electoral roll for every territorial constituency?
(a) Article 324
(b) Article 325
(c) Article 326
(d) Article 329
Answer: (b) Article 325
Explanation: Article 325 provides for one general electoral roll for every territorial constituency and prohibits exclusion from such a roll on grounds only of religion, race, caste or sex. It is an important constitutional provision relating to equality and non-discrimination in electoral registration.
17. Which High Court recently dealt with casteist abuse made through social media in connection with the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act?
(a) Bombay High Court
(b) Calcutta High Court
(c) Madras High Court
(d) Kerala High Court
Answer: (b) Calcutta High Court
Explanation: The Calcutta High Court considered a case involving alleged casteist abuse published on Facebook and emphasised that the statutory concept of public view can extend to the digital domain depending on the circumstances. The case also highlighted the importance of proper cyber-forensic investigation instead of closing a case merely because the initial inquiry did not identify the accused. The SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 provides special legal protection against specified atrocities against members of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
18. The Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act was enacted in which year?
(a) 1955
(b) 1976
(c) 1989
(d) 1992
Answer: (c) 1989
Explanation: The Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act was enacted in 1989 and came into force in 1990. It was designed to prevent atrocities against members of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes and provides for Special Courts and specified offences. The Act has subsequently been amended, including significant amendments in 2015 and 2018.
19. Which constitutional principle is most directly relevant to the doctrine of separation of powers in India?
(a) Absolute separation of the three organs
(b) Functional separation with checks and balances
(c) Complete parliamentary supremacy
(d) Judicial supremacy over every State organ
Answer: (b) Functional separation with checks and balances
Explanation: The Indian Constitution does not provide for an absolute separation of powers. Instead, it distributes governmental functions among the legislature, executive and judiciary while creating mechanisms of checks and balances. For example, Parliament makes laws, the executive implements them, and courts exercise judicial review subject to constitutional limitations.
20. Which Article establishes the Parliament of India?
(a) Article 74
(b) Article 79
(c) Article 80
(d) Article 81
Answer: (b) Article 79
Explanation: Article 79 provides that there shall be a Parliament for the Union consisting of the President and two Houses—the Council of States, or Rajya Sabha, and the House of the People, or Lok Sabha. Thus, constitutionally, the President is a component of Parliament even though not a member of either House.
21. Which country hosted the 2026 Asian Games in which several Indian athletes won medals on 2 October?
(a) China
(b) Japan
(c) South Korea
(d) Thailand
Answer: (b) Japan
Explanation: The 2026 Asian Games are being held in Aichi-Nagoya, Japan, from 19 September to 4 October 2026. On 2 October, Indian athletes won gold medals in sports including boxing, wrestling and women's hockey. The Games are the 20th edition of the Asian Games.
22. Which Indian women's team won the Asian Games 2026 hockey gold medal on 2 October?
(a) Indian women's hockey team
(b) Indian women's football team
(c) Indian women's kabaddi team
(d) Indian women's handball team
Answer: (a) Indian women's hockey team
Explanation: India's women's hockey team won the Asian Games 2026 gold medal, ending a 44-year wait for the title. India defeated China in the final. The achievement is significant because the Asian Games hockey champion also gains an important qualification pathway toward the Olympic Games.
23. Which Indian boxer won the women's 75 kg gold medal at the Asian Games 2026?
(a) Nikhat Zareen
(b) Lovlina Borgohain
(c) Parveen Hooda
(d) Mary Kom
Answer: (b) Lovlina Borgohain
Explanation: Lovlina Borgohain won the women's 75 kg boxing gold medal at the 2026 Asian Games. She defeated China's Bao Ziyi in the final. Lovlina had previously won an Olympic bronze medal at Tokyo 2020 in the women's welterweight category, making her one of India's prominent international boxers.
24. Which Indian wrestler won the men's freestyle 65 kg gold medal at the 2026 Asian Games?
(a) Bajrang Punia
(b) Ravi Dahiya
(c) Sujeet
(d) Deepak Punia
Answer: (c) Sujeet
Explanation: Sujeet won the men's freestyle 65 kg gold medal at the 2026 Asian Games. Wrestling is one of India's traditional medal-producing sports at the Asian Games. The 2026 edition is being held in Japan's Aichi-Nagoya region, with competition across numerous Olympic and Asian Games disciplines.
Courtesy:
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