1. What is the total outlay approved for the Green Energy Corridor Phase-III (GEC-III) scheme?
(a) ₹1,36,378 crore
(b) ₹1,50,000 crore
(c) ₹1,86,405 crore
(d) ₹2,00,000 crore
Answer: (c) ₹1,86,405 crore
Explanation: The Union Cabinet approved the Green Energy Corridor Phase-III scheme with a total outlay of ₹1,86,405 crore. Of this, ₹1,36,378 crore is allocated for intra-state transmission systems and ₹50,000 crore for Battery Energy Storage Systems (BESS). The scheme aims to facilitate evacuation of up to 135 GW of renewable energy and is targeted for completion by FY 2032–33.
2. Which ministry is the nodal ministry for implementing the Green Energy Corridor programme?
(a) Ministry of Power
(b) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
(c) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
(d) Ministry of Finance
Answer: (c) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
Explanation: The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) is the nodal ministry for the Green Energy Corridor programme. GEC-III focuses on strengthening the Intra-State Transmission System (InSTS) to integrate renewable electricity into the grid. The scheme also provides for 50 GWh of Battery Energy Storage Systems for the first time under the GEC programme.
3. How much Battery Energy Storage System (BESS) capacity is proposed under Green Energy Corridor Phase-III?
(a) 25 GWh
(b) 40 GWh
(c) 50 GWh
(d) 75 GWh
Answer: (c) 50 GWh
Explanation: GEC-III provides for 50 GWh of Battery Energy Storage Systems. BESS can store surplus electricity generated during periods of high renewable generation and release it during peak-demand or non-solar hours. It helps address renewable-energy intermittency, transmission congestion and curtailment.
4. The Green Energy Corridor Phase-III scheme is primarily designed to strengthen which transmission system?
(a) Inter-State Transmission System
(b) Intra-State Transmission System
(c) International Transmission System
(d) Rural Distribution System
Answer: (b) Intra-State Transmission System
Explanation: GEC-III specifically strengthens the Intra-State Transmission System (InSTS). It will enable the evacuation of up to 135 GW of renewable energy across States and Union Territories. Greenfield projects under the scheme will be implemented through Tariff Based Competitive Bidding, while brownfield upgrades will follow the Cost Plus Basis.
5. Which organisation completed 100 years of institutional existence on 1 October 2026?
(a) Election Commission of India
(b) Union Public Service Commission
(c) Finance Commission of India
(d) Staff Selection Commission
Answer: (b) Union Public Service Commission
Explanation: The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) completed 100 years of institutional existence on 1 October 2026. The Public Service Commission was established in 1926, while the present UPSC derives its constitutional status from Part XIV of the Constitution, particularly Articles 315–323. Article 320 specifies important functions of Public Service Commissions, including conducting examinations for appointments to Union services.
6. Under which Part of the Constitution of India are the Union Public Service Commission and State Public Service Commissions provided?
(a) Part X
(b) Part XI
(c) Part XIV
(d) Part XV
Answer: (c) Part XIV
Explanation: Part XIV of the Constitution deals with Services under the Union and the States. Articles 315–323 contain provisions relating to the Union Public Service Commission and State Public Service Commissions. Article 315 provides for a Public Service Commission for the Union and a Public Service Commission for each State.
7. Which Articles of the Constitution primarily deal with the Union Public Service Commission and State Public Service Commissions?
(a) Articles 280–281
(b) Articles 300–307
(c) Articles 315–323
(d) Articles 324–329
Answer: (c) Articles 315–323
Explanation: Articles 315–323 contain the constitutional framework relating to Public Service Commissions. Article 315 provides for the establishment of Public Service Commissions, Article 316 deals with appointment and term of office, Article 317 deals with removal and suspension, Article 320 deals with functions, and Article 323 deals with annual reports.
8. Where did the second edition of the ASEAN-India Maritime Exercise (AIME-2026) commence?
(a) Singapore
(b) Visakhapatnam, India
(c) Subic Bay, Philippines
(d) Jakarta, Indonesia
Answer: (c) Subic Bay, Philippines
Explanation: AIME-2026 commenced at Subic Bay in the Philippines on 28 September 2026. Indian Naval Ships Sahyadri and Kulish are participating along with maritime forces from ASEAN member states. The exercise is designed to enhance mutual understanding, operational cooperation and interoperability between India and ASEAN maritime forces.
9. What is the theme of the ASEAN-India Maritime Exercise (AIME-2026)?
(a) Together for Maritime Security
(b) Anchored in Trust, United at Sea
(c) Secure Seas, Shared Future
(d) Maritime Cooperation for Peace
Answer: (b) Anchored in Trust, United at Sea
Explanation: AIME-2026 is being conducted under the theme “Anchored in Trust, United at Sea.” The exercise has a Harbour Phase followed by a Sea Phase. It supports India’s Act East Policy and the MAHASAGAR vision—Mutual and Holistic Advancement for Security and Growth Across Regions.
10. Which Indian Naval Ships participated in AIME-2026?
(a) INS Vikrant and INS Kolkata
(b) INS Sahyadri and INS Kulish
(c) INS Chennai and INS Shivalik
(d) INS Kiltan and INS Surat
Answer: (b) INS Sahyadri and INS Kulish
Explanation: INS Sahyadri and INS Kulish represent the Indian Navy in AIME-2026. Their participation reflects India's maritime engagement with ASEAN countries and supports practical cooperation in the Indo-Pacific region. AIME is an important component of India–ASEAN maritime cooperation.
11. What is the approved outlay of the National Coastal Mission 2.0?
(a) ₹500 crore
(b) ₹650 crore
(c) ₹767 crore
(d) ₹1,000 crore
Answer: (c) ₹767 crore
Explanation: National Coastal Mission 2.0 is a Central Sector Scheme with an approved outlay of ₹767 crore and will be implemented up to 2030–31. It covers nine coastal States and four Union Territories. Its objectives include coastal resilience, ecosystem restoration, pollution management, biodiversity conservation, sustainable tourism and development of the Blue Economy.
12. Which ministry administers the National Coastal Mission 2.0?
(a) Ministry of Jal Shakti
(b) Ministry of Earth Sciences
(c) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
(d) Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying
Answer: (c) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
Explanation: The National Coastal Mission 2.0 is administered by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC). It covers nine coastal States and four coastal Union Territories and seeks to strengthen the resilience and sustainability of India's coastal regions while promoting the Blue Economy.
13. Which of the following is NOT one of the objectives of National Coastal Mission 2.0?
(a) Coastal ecosystem restoration
(b) Pollution management
(c) Biodiversity conservation
(d) Development of inland coal mines
Answer: (d) Development of inland coal mines
Explanation: NCM 2.0 focuses on coastal and marine ecosystems, including ecosystem restoration, pollution control, biodiversity conservation, climate adaptation, spatial planning, sustainable tourism and coastal livelihoods. The Mission is linked to sustainable development of India's Blue Economy.
14. What is the main purpose of the new Corporate Average Fuel Economy (CAFE) norms notified for passenger vehicles?
(a) To regulate vehicle registration fees
(b) To improve fleet-wide fuel efficiency and reduce emissions
(c) To determine automobile insurance premiums
(d) To regulate road toll charges
Answer: (b) To improve fleet-wide fuel efficiency and reduce emissions
Explanation: The new CAFE norms apply from 1 April 2027 to 31 March 2032 and seek to improve the fuel efficiency of passenger-vehicle fleets. The norms become progressively stricter, with the benchmark moving from 3.996 litres per 100 km in 2027–28 to 3.3273 litres per 100 km in 2031–32. The framework also recognises technologies such as EVs, hybrids and low-carbon fuels.
15. What does CAFE stand for in India's automobile regulatory framework?
(a) Corporate Automobile Fuel Efficiency
(b) Corporate Average Fuel Economy
(c) Carbon Average Fuel Emission
(d) Corporate Automotive Fuel Emission
Answer: (b) Corporate Average Fuel Economy
Explanation: CAFE stands for Corporate Average Fuel Economy. It establishes fleet-wide fuel-efficiency and carbon-emission standards for new passenger vehicles manufactured or imported for sale in India. The norms are notified by the Ministry of Power under the Energy Conservation framework, with technical coordination involving the Bureau of Energy Efficiency.
16. For which marketing season did the Union Cabinet approve increased Minimum Support Prices for Rabi crops on 1 October 2026?
(a) 2026–27
(b) 2027–28
(c) 2028–29
(d) 2029–30
Answer: (b) 2027–28
Explanation: The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs approved increased MSPs for mandated Rabi crops for Marketing Season 2027–28. The largest absolute increase was announced for safflower at ₹675 per quintal, followed by rapeseed and mustard at ₹413 per quintal. Lentil received an increase of ₹390 per quintal, while wheat received an increase of ₹25 per quintal.
17. Which Rabi crop received the highest absolute increase in MSP for Marketing Season 2027–28?
(a) Wheat
(b) Gram
(c) Safflower
(d) Barley
Answer: (c) Safflower
Explanation: Safflower received the highest absolute increase in MSP at ₹675 per quintal for Marketing Season 2027–28. It was followed by rapeseed and mustard with an increase of ₹413 per quintal. Among other crops, lentil received ₹390, barley ₹136, gram ₹83 and wheat ₹25 per quintal increase.
18. Which organisation released the Annual Survey of Industries (ASI) 2024–25 results?
(a) Reserve Bank of India
(b) NITI Aayog
(c) Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
(d) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
Answer: (c) Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
Explanation: The Annual Survey of Industries (ASI) 2024–25 results were released by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI). The survey provides important information about India's registered manufacturing sector, including establishments, employment, output, input, value added and capital. Tamil Nadu recorded the highest number of manufacturing establishments, while Maharashtra had the highest share of manufacturing GVA.
19. Which State had the highest number of manufacturing establishments according to ASI 2024–25?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Karnataka
Answer: (c) Tamil Nadu
Explanation: Tamil Nadu recorded the highest number of registered manufacturing establishments in ASI 2024–25, with 41,221 establishments. Gujarat and Maharashtra followed. The survey reported approximately 2.67 lakh registered manufacturing establishments nationally and around 2.10 crore persons engaged in the registered manufacturing sector.
20. Which country is associated with the Gandak River's transboundary catchment?
(a) Bhutan
(b) Nepal
(c) Bangladesh
(d) Myanmar
Answer: (b) Nepal
Explanation: The Gandak is a transboundary river originating in the Himalayas of Nepal and flowing through India before joining the Ganga at Sonepur in Bihar, opposite Patna. Its major tributaries include the Kali Gandaki and Trishuli systems. The river is important for irrigation, agriculture and transboundary water management between India and Nepal.
21. What is the significance of the UN General Assembly's first-ever declaration on sea-level rise discussed on 1 October 2026?
(a) It establishes a global sea-level tax
(b) It recognises rising sea levels as an existential threat
(c) It bans all coastal construction
(d) It creates a new World Ocean Court
Answer: (b) It recognises rising sea levels as an existential threat
Explanation: The first-ever UN declaration on sea-level rise recognises the serious threat posed by rising sea levels and addresses the implications for vulnerable island and coastal States. An important legal issue is the continuity of statehood despite possible physical submergence of territory. The development is especially relevant to small island developing States such as Tuvalu and Kiribati.
22. The Draft Petroleum (Amendment) Bill, 2026 primarily proposes changes to which legislation?
(a) Petroleum Act, 1934
(b) Mines and Minerals Act, 1957
(c) Oilfields Act, 1948
(d) Energy Conservation Act, 2001
Answer: (a) Petroleum Act, 1934
Explanation: The Draft Petroleum (Amendment) Bill, 2026 seeks to amend provisions of the Petroleum Act, 1934, particularly relating to offences, penalties, licensing violations and legal procedures. The proposal includes a graded penalty framework under which routine licensing breaches could attract civil penalties, while serious offences would continue to attract criminal consequences.
23. Which body extended the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) schedule in Andhra Pradesh and Meghalaya in the current-affairs reports of 1 October 2026?
(a) Union Home Ministry
(b) Election Commission of India
(c) Supreme Court of India
(d) Law Commission of India
Answer: (b) Election Commission of India
Explanation: The Election Commission of India extended the schedule for Special Intensive Revision (SIR) in Andhra Pradesh and Meghalaya. Electoral-roll revision is an important function connected with the constitutional mandate of the Election Commission under Article 324. Article 325 also provides for one general electoral roll for every territorial constituency and prohibits exclusion on grounds only of religion, race, caste or sex.
24. Under which Article of the Constitution is the Election Commission of India vested with the superintendence, direction and control of elections?
(a) Article 280
(b) Article 315
(c) Article 324
(d) Article 329
Answer: (c) Article 324
Explanation: Article 324 vests the superintendence, direction and control of elections to Parliament, State Legislatures and the offices of President and Vice-President in the Election Commission of India. Article 325 deals with a single general electoral roll, Article 326 provides for elections based on adult suffrage, and Article 329 restricts judicial interference in electoral matters except through constitutionally prescribed mechanisms.
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