1. Exercise KAZIND-2026 is a joint military exercise between India and which country?
(a) Kyrgyzstan
(b) Kazakhstan
(c) Uzbekistan
(d) Mongolia
Answer: (b) Kazakhstan
Explanation: Exercise KAZIND-2026 is the 9th edition of the India–Kazakhstan joint military exercise. It is being conducted from 28 September to 11 October 2026 at Oskemen, Kazakhstan. The exercise focuses on joint counter-terrorism operations in semi-urban and mountainous terrain under a United Nations mandate. India has deployed a 60-member contingent, including personnel from the Garhwal Rifles.
2. What position did India secure at the 48th WorldSkills Competition 2026 held in Shanghai?
(a) 8th
(b) 9th
(c) 10th
(d) 13th
Answer: (c) 10th
Explanation: India secured the 10th position at WorldSkills Shanghai 2026, improving from 13th position at WorldSkills Lyon 2024. India won 6 Silver Medals and 20 Medals for Excellence. India sent its largest-ever contingent of 70 competitors competing across 63 skills. Smriti Nambiar, who won a Silver Medal in Bakery, was named Best of Nation for India.
3. Where was the Global Cooling Pledge Assembly 2026 held?
(a) Dubai
(b) Singapore
(c) Geneva
(d) New Delhi
Answer: (b) Singapore
Explanation: The Global Cooling Pledge Assembly 2026 was held in Singapore. It focused on sustainable cooling, energy efficiency and protection against extreme heat. Singapore, the UAE and Dong Mingzhu of Gree Electric Appliances were recognised as the first-ever Cool Leaders. The initiative is important because global demand for cooling is expected to increase substantially in the coming decades.
4. A new species of ancient microscopic fungus, Vizellopsidites miocenicus, was discovered in which Indian state?
(a) Himachal Pradesh
(b) Uttarakhand
(c) Sikkim
(d) Haryana
Answer: (a) Himachal Pradesh
Explanation: Vizellopsidites miocenicus was discovered preserved on a fossilised plant leaf in Mandi district of Himachal Pradesh. The fossil was found in Middle Siwalik sedimentary formations and dates back approximately 8–12 million years to the Late Miocene epoch. The discovery provides information about ancient Himalayan ecosystems and past climatic conditions.
5. World Heart Day is observed every year on which date?
(a) 27 September
(b) 28 September
(c) 29 September
(d) 30 September
Answer: (c) 29 September
Explanation: World Heart Day is observed annually on 29 September. The 2026 campaign uses the theme “Don’t Miss a Beat” and focuses on recognising cardiovascular-disease symptoms, protecting heart health and encouraging stronger public-health action. The World Heart Federation coordinates the global campaign.
6. What is the theme of World Heart Day 2026?
(a) Heart for All
(b) Don’t Miss a Beat
(c) Healthy Heart, Healthy World
(d) Unite for Heart Health
Answer: (b) Don’t Miss a Beat
Explanation: The 2026 World Heart Day campaign is titled “Don’t Miss a Beat.” It seeks to increase awareness of cardiovascular diseases, including symptoms that may remain unnoticed, and promote preventive measures and stronger national action. Cardiovascular diseases remain a major cause of death globally.
7. Which organisation coordinated the Global Cooling Pledge?
(a) UNEP
(b) UNESCO
(c) UNDP
(d) UNCTAD
Answer: (a) UNEP
Explanation: The Global Cooling Pledge is associated with the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) and international efforts to improve cooling efficiency and reduce emissions. Sustainable cooling is important because increasing temperatures and rising demand for air conditioning create both energy and climate challenges.
8. Which organisation has recommended an increase in the Ways and Means Advances limit for State Governments?
(a) SEBI
(b) RBI
(c) Finance Commission
(d) NABARD
Answer: (b) RBI
Explanation: An RBI-appointed panel recommended increasing the aggregate Ways and Means Advances (WMA) limit for State Governments from ₹61,008 crore to ₹67,839 crore. WMA is a temporary financing mechanism that helps governments manage short-term mismatches between receipts and expenditure. The recommendation is relevant to State fiscal management and Centre–State financial relations.
9. What is the primary purpose of Ways and Means Advances (WMA) provided to governments?
(a) Financing long-term infrastructure projects
(b) Meeting temporary mismatches in cash flows
(c) Financing foreign trade deficits
(d) Providing agricultural subsidies
Answer: (b) Meeting temporary mismatches in cash flows
Explanation: Ways and Means Advances are short-term advances provided by the Reserve Bank of India to governments to bridge temporary mismatches between their receipts and expenditure. They are not intended as a substitute for long-term borrowing or permanent deficit financing.
10. Which body issued India’s first PRAMAAN certificates under the Indian Forest and Wood Certification Scheme?
(a) Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
(b) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
(c) Ministry of Rural Development
(d) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
Answer: (b) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
Explanation: India issued its first PRAMAAN certificates under the Indian Forest and Wood Certification Scheme (IFWCS). The scheme was launched in December 2023 by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change. PRAMAAN certification is intended to promote sustainable forest management and improve the credibility of India’s forest and wood-based products in domestic and international markets.
11. PRAMAAN is associated with which of the following?
(a) Organic agricultural certification
(b) Forest and wood certification
(c) Pharmaceutical quality certification
(d) Textile sustainability certification
Answer: (b) Forest and wood certification
Explanation: PRAMAAN is the certification framework associated with the Indian Forest and Wood Certification Scheme. It is designed to provide credible certification of forest and wood-based value chains and support sustainable forest management. The first certificates were issued in September 2026.
12. Which port-related organisation secured $70 million in IFC blue financing for a shore-power project?
(a) Cochin Port Authority
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru Port Authority
(c) Chennai Port Authority
(d) Paradip Port Authority
Answer: (b) Jawaharlal Nehru Port Authority
Explanation: The Jawaharlal Nehru Port Authority (JNPA) secured $70 million in blue financing from the International Finance Corporation for a ₹650-crore shore-power project. Shore power enables ships at berth to use electricity from the grid instead of running their auxiliary engines, thereby reducing local air pollution and carbon emissions.
13. What is meant by “shore power” in the context of ports?
(a) Electricity generated exclusively by offshore wind farms
(b) Electricity supplied to ships from the shore while they are berthed
(c) Power generated by ships for coastal communities
(d) Solar power generated on ships
Answer: (b) Electricity supplied to ships from the shore while they are berthed
Explanation: Shore power, also called cold ironing or alternative maritime power, allows vessels to connect to an electrical supply on land while at berth. This can reduce the need to operate ship engines and consequently lower emissions of pollutants and greenhouse gases around ports.
14. Which grade of steel has been mandated by NHAI for highway crash barriers under the revised safety standards?
(a) E250
(b) E300
(c) E350
(d) E450
Answer: (c) E350
Explanation: The National Highways Authority of India has updated standards for highway crash barriers, mandating E350-grade galvanised steel under IS 2062. The measure is intended to strengthen road-safety infrastructure and improve the performance of crash barriers on highways.
15. Which organisation is responsible for implementing and managing India's National Highways under the NHAI framework?
(a) Ministry of Railways
(b) National Highways Authority of India
(c) Border Roads Organisation
(d) National Disaster Management Authority
Answer: (b) National Highways Authority of India
Explanation: The National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) is a statutory authority responsible for the development, maintenance and management of national highways entrusted to it. It was constituted under the National Highways Authority of India Act, 1988. Road transport and highways policy is administered by the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways.
16. Which three countries constitute the IBSA Dialogue Forum?
(a) India, Brazil and South Africa
(b) India, Bangladesh and South Africa
(c) Indonesia, Brazil and South Africa
(d) India, Brazil and Saudi Arabia
Answer: (a) India, Brazil and South Africa
Explanation: IBSA stands for India–Brazil–South Africa Dialogue Forum. The three countries cooperate on issues including multilateralism, South–South cooperation, development, international governance and global challenges. On 29 September 2026, their foreign ministers reiterated support for multilateralism and dialogue concerning West Asia.
17. The UAE indicated an investment plan of approximately what amount in India across ports, energy and space sectors?
(a) $10 billion
(b) $15 billion
(c) $25 billion
(d) $40 billion
Answer: (c) $25 billion
Explanation: The UAE indicated a potential investment plan of approximately $25 billion in India across areas including ports, energy and space. India and the UAE have also set an objective of increasing bilateral trade to $200 billion by 2032. The UAE is an important economic partner of India in the Gulf region.
18. Which organisation provided the $70 million blue financing to JNPA?
(a) Asian Development Bank
(b) International Finance Corporation
(c) World Bank
(d) New Development Bank
Answer: (b) International Finance Corporation
Explanation: The International Finance Corporation (IFC), a member of the World Bank Group, provided $70 million in blue financing for JNPA’s shore-power project. Blue finance generally supports projects connected with sustainable use and protection of oceans and water-related resources.
19. Which High Court directed the development of a technology-driven public-safety framework across the State following a Bengaluru tragedy?
(a) Kerala High Court
(b) Karnataka High Court
(c) Telangana High Court
(d) Madras High Court
Answer: (b) Karnataka High Court
Explanation: The Karnataka High Court directed the State to develop a technology-driven framework for identifying and monitoring public-safety hazards following a tragedy in Bengaluru. The directions highlight the role of civic authorities, technology and preventive regulation in protecting public safety.
20. India held strategic discussions with which Pacific island country concerning maritime security and cyber training?
(a) Fiji
(b) Tonga
(c) Samoa
(d) Vanuatu
Answer: (a) Fiji
Explanation: India and Fiji held strategic discussions aimed at strengthening cooperation in maritime security and cyber training. Fiji is an important Pacific island state, and India’s engagement with Pacific Island Countries forms part of its broader Indo-Pacific outreach and development partnership.
21. The District Mineral Foundation (DMF) was established primarily for the benefit of which population?
(a) Industrial workers
(b) Persons affected by mining operations
(c) Coastal fishing communities
(d) Urban migrant workers
Answer: (b) Persons affected by mining operations
Explanation: District Mineral Foundations are intended to work for the benefit of people and areas affected by mining-related operations. A CAG audit report concerning Odisha examined expenditure from DMF funds and identified projects that were inadmissible under the applicable rules. DMFs are an important component of India’s mining-governance framework.
22. Which constitutional authority has the power to recognise political parties and allot election symbols under the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968?
(a) Parliament
(b) Supreme Court of India
(c) Election Commission of India
(d) Law Commission of India
Answer: (c) Election Commission of India
Explanation: The Election Commission of India administers recognition of political parties and reservation/allotment of election symbols under the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968. The Supreme Court recently directed the Election Commission to adjudicate a Trinamool Congress-related symbol dispute within a specified period. The matter illustrates the constitutional and statutory role of the ECI in electoral administration.
23. Which constitutional Article vests the superintendence, direction and control of elections in the Election Commission of India?
(a) Article 280
(b) Article 312
(c) Article 324
(d) Article 329
Answer: (c) Article 324
Explanation: Article 324 of the Constitution vests the superintendence, direction and control of elections to Parliament, State Legislatures and the offices of President and Vice-President in the Election Commission of India. Article 324 is therefore a key constitutional provision for understanding electoral administration in India.
24. Which of the following best describes the function of the Supreme Court Collegium in relation to judicial appointments?
(a) It conducts elections for High Courts
(b) It recommends appointments and transfers of higher judiciary judges
(c) It appoints all subordinate-court judges directly
(d) It frames the Union Budget for the judiciary
Answer: (b) It recommends appointments and transfers of higher judiciary judges
Explanation: The Supreme Court Collegium is a judicial mechanism through which recommendations concerning appointments and transfers of judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts are made. On 29 September 2026, the Collegium recommended three High Court Chief Justices for appointment as Supreme Court judges, which would increase the Supreme Court's sitting strength to 37. The constitutional appointment formally involves the President under Articles 124 and 217.
Courtesy:
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