1. India has reaffirmed its goal of eliminating Hepatitis B and C as public health threats by which year?
(a) 2027
(b) 2030
(c) 2035
(d) 2040
Answer: (b) 2030
Explanation: India has reaffirmed the target of eliminating Hepatitis B and C as public health threats by 2030. This is relevant to Law Entrance examinations in the context of the Right to Health under Article 21 and Article 47 of the Constitution, which directs the State to improve public health.
2. KAVACH 4.0, India's railway automatic train protection system, was commissioned for the first time on which railway zone?
(a) Northern Railway
(b) Western Railway
(c) South Central Railway
(d) Eastern Railway
Answer: (c) South Central Railway
Explanation: KAVACH 4.0 was commissioned for the first time on South Central Railway over a 108-km route between Malkajgiri and Kamareddi in Telangana. It is an indigenous automatic train protection system designed to enhance railway safety, making it relevant to questions on technology, public administration and regulatory governance.
3. From 1 April 2027, BIS certification will become mandatory for which product?
(a) Mobile phone batteries
(b) Smartphone screen protectors
(c) Mobile phone chargers
(d) Wireless earphones
Answer: (b) Smartphone screen protectors
Explanation: BIS certification for smartphone screen protectors will become mandatory from 1 April 2027 under the applicable Indian Standard. The development is relevant to consumer protection, product standards and the regulatory role of the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS).
4. What is the theme of the 9th India International Water Week 2026?
(a) Water for Sustainable India
(b) Climate Resilient Water Management
(c) Water Security for All
(d) Sustainable Rivers for Future Generations
Answer: (b) Climate Resilient Water Management
Explanation: The 9th India International Water Week 2026 was organised around the theme “Climate Resilient Water Management.” The subject is important for Law Entrance examinations because environmental protection, sustainable development and water governance are closely connected with environmental law and constitutional principles.
5. Which two countries were partner countries at the India International Water Week 2026?
(a) France and Japan
(b) Netherlands and Germany
(c) Australia and Japan
(d) France and Australia
Answer: (b) Netherlands and Germany
Explanation: The Netherlands and Germany were partner countries at the India International Water Week 2026. International cooperation on water management is relevant to environmental governance and the broader principle of sustainable development in international and domestic law.
6. Which Indian State has fixed 1 January 2027 as the deadline for adopting a paperless e-Office system?
(a) Assam
(b) Odisha
(c) Kerala
(d) West Bengal
Answer: (a) Assam
Explanation: Assam has fixed 1 January 2027 as the deadline for adopting a paperless e-Office system across its Secretariat departments. The initiative is relevant to e-governance, administrative efficiency, digital records and contemporary developments in administrative law.
7. Which organisation developed the e-Office platform being adopted by Assam?
(a) UIDAI
(b) National Informatics Centre (NIC)
(c) NITI Aayog
(d) Digital India Corporation
Answer: (b) National Informatics Centre (NIC)
Explanation: The e-Office platform was developed by the National Informatics Centre (NIC), an important government technology institution. NIC's role in digital governance is relevant to questions concerning e-governance, electronic administration and the use of technology by public authorities.
8. Andhra Pradesh Police launched which platform to provide centralised live drone feeds with AI-based monitoring and analytics?
(a) SafeNet AP
(b) CDMP
(c) DigiPolice AP
(d) AP Drone Watch
Answer: (b) CDMP
Explanation: The Andhra Pradesh Police launched CDMP to provide centralised live drone feeds with AI-based monitoring and analytics. The development raises contemporary legal issues concerning surveillance, privacy, data governance and the fundamental right to privacy recognised under Article 21.
9. What is the name of the application launched by Andhra Pradesh Police to track real-time hotel and PG occupancy?
(a) SafeStay AP
(b) Suraksha AP
(c) StaySecure India
(d) DigiStay AP
Answer: (a) SafeStay AP
Explanation: SafeStay AP enables tracking of real-time hotel and paying-guest occupancy. Such technology-based policing is relevant to Law Entrance examinations because it raises questions concerning privacy, personal data, police powers and the balance between public security and individual liberty.
10. India sent its largest-ever delegation of competitors to which international skills competition in 2026?
(a) WorldSkills Shanghai 2026
(b) World Youth Skills Forum 2026
(c) International Skills Olympics 2026
(d) Global Vocational Skills Summit 2026
Answer: (a) WorldSkills Shanghai 2026
Explanation: India sent 70 competitors to WorldSkills Shanghai 2026, participating in 63 of its 64 categories. The participation was coordinated by the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship and the National Skill Development Corporation, both useful institutions for General Knowledge preparation.
11. Who was appointed as the new envoy of Bangladesh to India?
(a) Riaz Hamidullah
(b) Asad Alam Siam
(c) Jayant Mammen Mathew
(d) Md. Touhid Hossain
Answer: (b) Asad Alam Siam
Explanation: Asad Alam Siam, Bangladesh's Foreign Secretary, was named as the country's new envoy to India, succeeding Riaz Hamidullah. Diplomatic appointments are relevant to international relations and to understanding the Union Government's constitutional responsibility for foreign affairs.
12. The updated Arctic defence agreement signed by the United States, Denmark and Greenland supplements which earlier agreement?
(a) 1945 Washington Agreement
(b) 1949 NATO Treaty
(c) 1951 Defense Agreement on Greenland
(d) 1967 Outer Space Treaty
Answer: (c) 1951 Defense Agreement on Greenland
Explanation: The updated agreement between the United States, Denmark and Greenland supplements the 1951 Defense Agreement on Greenland and concerns military access and defence infrastructure. It is relevant to questions on international agreements, strategic relations and international security.
13. Which institution revised the valuation rules for REIT and InvIT units held by All India Financial Institutions (AIFIs)?
(a) SEBI
(b) Ministry of Finance
(c) Reserve Bank of India
(d) IRDAI
Answer: (c) Reserve Bank of India
Explanation: The Reserve Bank of India revised the valuation rules for REIT and InvIT units held by All India Financial Institutions. The question is useful for understanding the regulatory functions of the RBI and the distinction between India's major financial regulators.
14. Who was re-elected as the President of the News Broadcasters & Digital Association (NBDA) for 2026–27?
(a) Rajat Sharma
(b) Jayant Mammen Mathew
(c) Riaz Hamidullah
(d) Asad Alam Siam
Answer: (a) Rajat Sharma
Explanation: Rajat Sharma was re-elected President of the News Broadcasters & Digital Association (NBDA) for 2026–27. The development is relevant to constitutional questions concerning freedom of speech and expression under Article 19(1)(a), particularly in relation to media.
15. The Booker Prize 2026 shortlist consists of how many novels?
(a) Four
(b) Five
(c) Six
(d) Eight
Answer: (c) Six
Explanation: The Booker Prize 2026 shortlist consists of six novels selected from 163 submissions. International literary awards are important for the General Knowledge component of UGLAW and PGLAW, particularly questions concerning major international awards and literature.
16. Which joint military exercise between India and Japan concluded at Air Force Station Jodhpur on 22 September 2026?
(a) Dharma Guardian
(b) Malabar
(c) Veer Guardian
(d) Shinyuu Maitri
Answer: (c) Veer Guardian
Explanation: Veer Guardian 2026, a bilateral air exercise between the Indian Air Force and Japan Air Self-Defense Force, concluded at Air Force Station Jodhpur. Defence exercises are important for General Knowledge and also help students understand India's strategic and international relations.
17. Ayushman Bharat PM-JAY provides eligible beneficiaries with healthcare coverage of up to what amount annually?
(a) ₹2 lakh
(b) ₹3 lakh
(c) ₹5 lakh
(d) ₹10 lakh
Answer: (c) ₹5 lakh
Explanation: Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (AB-PMJAY) provides eligible beneficiaries with health coverage of up to ₹5 lakh per family per year. It is relevant to social justice, public health and the expanding constitutional understanding of the Right to Life under Article 21.
18. In which year was Ayushman Bharat PM-JAY launched?
(a) 2016
(b) 2017
(c) 2018
(d) 2019
Answer: (c) 2018
Explanation: Ayushman Bharat PM-JAY was launched in September 2018 as a major public health protection scheme. For Law Entrance examinations, remember its connection with welfare policy, social justice, public health and the constitutional Directive Principles.
19. Under the modified UDAN scheme, how long will the new phase continue?
(a) 5 years
(b) 7 years
(c) 10 years
(d) 15 years
Answer: (c) 10 years
Explanation: The modified UDAN scheme will enter a new 10-year phase aimed at strengthening regional air connectivity. The scheme provides a useful example of public policy and cooperation between the Union Government and States in implementing development programmes.
20. Under the modified UDAN scheme, for how many years has the Viability Gap Funding (VGF) support for airlines been increased?
(a) 2 years
(b) 3 years
(c) 5 years
(d) 10 years
Answer: (c) 5 years
Explanation: Under the modified UDAN scheme, Viability Gap Funding support for airlines has been increased from three years to five years. VGF is a form of government financial support intended to make economically important but commercially challenging projects viable.
21. On which date is the International Day of Sign Languages observed?
(a) 21 September
(b) 22 September
(c) 23 September
(d) 24 September
Answer: (c) 23 September
Explanation: The International Day of Sign Languages is observed annually on 23 September. The United Nations proclaimed the observance through Resolution A/RES/72/161 in 2017, making it relevant to human rights, equality, inclusion and accessibility.
22. What was the theme of the International Day of Sign Languages 2026?
(a) Sign Languages for Inclusive Education
(b) Declaring Deaf People’s Human Rights
(c) Equality Through Communication
(d) Language, Identity and Inclusion
Answer: (b) Declaring Deaf People’s Human Rights
Explanation: The 2026 theme was “Declaring Deaf People’s Human Rights.” The theme is particularly relevant to Law Entrance examinations because it connects with equality, dignity, accessibility, inclusion and protection of human rights.
23. In which year was the World Federation of the Deaf established?
(a) 1945
(b) 1948
(c) 1951
(d) 1960
Answer: (c) 1951
Explanation: The World Federation of the Deaf (WFD) was established in 1951. The International Day of Sign Languages is observed on 23 September to commemorate the establishment of the WFD, making the year 1951 an important fact for General Knowledge preparation.
24. Which institution issued the 2026 directions concerning minimum capital requirements for market risk based on revised Basel III standards?
(a) Reserve Bank of India
(b) Securities and Exchange Board of India
(c) Finance Commission of India
(d) Competition Commission of India
Answer: (a) Reserve Bank of India
Explanation: The Reserve Bank of India issued the 2026 directions concerning minimum capital requirements for market risk, aligned with revised Basel III standards. The topic is useful for understanding banking regulation, financial stability and the statutory regulatory role of the RBI.
Courtesy:
E-CITY EDUWORLD-Get Educated to Lead.-An Institute for Competitive Exams
e-mail- educitykhn@gmail.com
Mobile: 9571160433
Whatsapp: 8284924324